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IB Biology · full-length mock · 1 hour 30 minutes

IB Biology Paper 1 mock. The whole syllabus, at the real length.

A complete Paper 1 (Standard level) built from the 2025 guide: 55 marks across 34 questions, in 1 hour 30 minutes. It follows the real paper's structure and rubric below, and every question is original and tagged to the syllabus. Sit it on screen against the clock and mark yourself, print it for a class, or build a fresh one with nothing repeated.

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1 hour 30 minutes · 55 marks · 36% of the final grade.

  1. Paper 1A30 marks 30 multiple-choice questions. Answer all. One best answer per question; no marks lost for wrong answers.
  2. Paper 1B25 marks 4 data-based questions. Each built on a data set, an experiment or a micrograph, ending in a question that leaves the data and tests taught content.

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The 30 multiple-choice questions are spread across all 40 subtopics in proportion to each theme, with subtopics taking turns so nothing is over-drawn. The four data-based questions are one per theme where the bank allows, each in the 5 to 7 mark range the real paper uses, chosen to sum as close to 25 as possible.

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Biology · Paper 1
Standard level · mock examination · Paper 1A multiple choice and Paper 1B data-based
90 minutes55 marks

Paper code: this paper was generated, so the code is its recipe. Enter it at biologybybradford.com/exam-maker to rebuild this exact paper and its markscheme.

Covers Whole syllabus: all 40 subtopics
  • Do not open this examination paper until instructed to do so.
  • Answer all questions.
  • A calculator is required for this paper.
  • Answers must be written within the answer boxes provided.
Name:
Paper 1A · Multiple choice

Answer all questions. Choose the one best answer for each question.

1.

In almost all organisms, from bacteria to humans, the codon GUG codes for the amino acid valine. What is the most reasonable explanation for the genetic code being shared across all life?

[1]
  1. Organisms frequently exchange their genetic codes with each other
  2. The code is determined by the laws of chemistry, so no other code is possible
  3. The code was inherited from a common ancestor of all living things
  4. Each group of organisms evolved the same code independently by convergent evolution
2.

How many chromosomes are present in the karyogram?

[1]
12345678910111213141516171819202122XYKaryogram of one individual
  1. 45
  2. 46
  3. 47
  4. 48
3.

Bonobos (Pan paniscus) live only south of the Congo River and common chimpanzees (Pan troglodytes) only north of it, where they share food plants with gorillas; there are no gorillas in the bonobos' range. Both species descend from one ancestral population. Which row correctly identifies the roles of the river and of differential selection in their speciation?

[1]
RowRole of the Congo RiverRole of differential selection
A.caused mutations that made the two populations differentprevented the two populations from interbreeding
B.prevented gene flow between the two populationsmade individuals change during their lifetimes to suit each side
C.selected for apes that were able to cross the waterfavoured the same heritable traits on both sides of the river
D.prevented gene flow between the two populationsfavoured different heritable traits on each side of the river
  1. Row C
  2. Row D
  3. Row A
  4. Row B
4.

The wing of a bat and the flipper of a whale contain the same pattern of bones (the pentadactyl limb) despite being used differently. What are these structures an example of?

[1]
  1. Structures acquired during each animal's lifetime
  2. Analogous structures resulting from convergent evolution
  3. Structures with no evolutionary significance
  4. Homologous structures resulting from divergent evolution
5.

What is the purpose of a seed bank?

[1]
  1. To sell rare seed varieties commercially
  2. To breed entirely new species of crop plant
  3. To store seeds of many plant species long-term
  4. To supply farmers with seed for each growing season
6.

Which row correctly predicts how each substance crosses a plasma membrane?

[1]
RowOxygenGlucoseSodium ions
A.simple diffusionchannel/carrier proteinchannel protein / pump
B.channel proteinsimple diffusionsimple diffusion
C.pumppumpsimple diffusion
D.exocytosisendocytosiscarrier
  1. Row A
  2. Row B
  3. Row D
  4. Row C
7.

Which row correctly describes facilitated diffusion?

[1]
RowProtein requiredDirection relative to concentration gradientATP used
A.yesdown the gradientno
B.yesagainst the gradientyes
C.nodown the gradientno
D.noagainst the gradientyes
  1. Row C
  2. Row B
  3. Row A
  4. Row D
8.

During phagocytosis, a white blood cell engulfs a bacterium into a vacuole, which then fuses with lysosomes. What is the advantage of digesting the bacterium inside this compartment?

[1]
phagocyte nucleus bacterium vacuole lysosome a white blood cell that has engulfed a bacterium
  1. Digestion proceeds more slowly, releasing nutrients gradually
  2. The bacterium is kept alive until it can be expelled from the cell
  3. The products of digestion pass directly out of the cell unused
  4. Enzymes act on the bacterium without digesting the cell itself
9.

A gene from a eukaryote was inserted into a bacterium. The gene was transcribed, but the protein produced was faulty. Which statement is the most likely explanation, based on the way the two types of cell are organized?

[1]
  1. The bacterium lacks a nucleus, so the DNA could not be transcribed into mRNA in the correct sequence
  2. The bacterium has no ribosomes of its own, so the mRNA was translated by ribosomes that had entered with the gene
  3. The bacterium has no nuclear compartment, so ribosomes translated the mRNA before it had been modified
  4. The bacterial cell wall prevented the mRNA from leaving the cell to reach ribosomes in the surrounding medium
10.

A spherical cell grows until its diameter is three times its original diameter. How do its surface area, its volume and its surface area-to-volume ratio change?

[1]
  1. Surface area ×9, volume ×27, ratio falls to one third
  2. Surface area ×9, volume ×27, ratio rises to three times
  3. Surface area ×6, volume ×9, ratio falls to two thirds
  4. Surface area ×3, volume ×9, ratio falls to one third
11.

A person is breathing quietly at rest. At which time is the air pressure inside the alveoli higher than atmospheric pressure?

[1]
  1. While the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles are contracting and the ribs are rising
  2. While the diaphragm relaxes and domes upwards and the ribs move down and inwards
  3. At the end of an inhalation, at the instant when the volume of the lungs is at its largest
  4. At the end of an exhalation, at the instant when the volume of the lungs is at its smallest
12.

On a hot, windy day, transpiration from a well-watered plant increases sharply. What change occurs in the xylem of its stem?

[1]
  1. Tension in the xylem rises, and water is pulled up faster
  2. Root pressure rises and pushes water up the xylem faster
  3. Pressure in the xylem becomes positive, so the vessels swell
  4. Water moves down the xylem from the leaves to the roots
13.

Bags of fine mesh, which keep out soil animals, were filled with dead leaves and left on a woodland floor. Some bags were treated with a fungicide, an antibacterial compound, or both. The table shows the mean percentage of the initial dry mass lost after six months.

Which conclusion is supported by these results?

[1]
TreatmentDry mass lost / %
none58
fungicide24
antibacterial compound44
fungicide and antibacterial compound6
  1. Soil animals such as earthworms carry out most of the decomposition here
  2. Bacteria decompose more of the leaf litter than fungi do in this woodland
  3. Fungi and bacteria both decompose the litter, and fungi account for more of it
  4. Leaf litter decomposes almost as fast without saprotrophs as it does with them
14.

A tenfold dilution series of a substrate solution is prepared. Tube 1 holds the undiluted 1.0 mol dm⁻³ stock. Each following tube is made by adding 1.0 cm³ from the previous tube to 9.0 cm³ of distilled water. What is the substrate concentration in tube 5?

[1]
  1. 1 × 10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³
  2. 1 × 10⁻³ mol dm⁻³
  3. 2 × 10⁻¹ mol dm⁻³
  4. 1 × 10⁻⁵ mol dm⁻³
15.

Which row correctly compares aerobic and anaerobic cell respiration in human muscle cells?

[1]
RowRequires oxygen?ATP yield per glucoseWaste product
A.aerobic: yes; anaerobic: noaerobic: high; anaerobic: lowaerobic: CO2 + water; anaerobic: lactate
B.aerobic: no; anaerobic: yesaerobic: low; anaerobic: highaerobic: lactate; anaerobic: CO2 + water
C.aerobic: yes; anaerobic: noaerobic: low; anaerobic: highaerobic: lactate; anaerobic: CO2 + water
D.aerobic: yes; anaerobic: yesaerobic: high; anaerobic: highaerobic: lactate; anaerobic: CO2 + water
  1. Row C
  2. Row D
  3. Row B
  4. Row A
16.

The complete oxidation of one mole of glucose releases about 2870 kJ of energy. Aerobic respiration of one mole of glucose produces about 30 moles of ATP, and synthesizing one mole of ATP from ADP and phosphate requires about 30 kJ. What percentage of the energy released from the glucose is transferred to ATP, and what happens to the rest of that energy?

[1]
  1. 69 %; the rest remains stored in the ADP and the phosphate
  2. 69 %; the rest is released to the surroundings as heat
  3. 31 %; the rest remains stored in the ADP and the phosphate
  4. 31 %; the rest is released to the surroundings as heat
17.

Leaf pigments are separated by chromatography. Why do the pigments travel different distances up the paper/plate?

[1]
chromatogram of a leaf extract origin (extract applied here) solvent front direction of solvent flow ↑
  1. The solvent digests some pigments
  2. They differ in solubility and adsorption
  3. Heavier pigments always travel further
  4. They are of different colours
18.

The absorption spectrum of chlorophyll and the action spectrum of photosynthesis have peaks at similar wavelengths. What does this similarity indicate?

[1]
  1. The wavelengths absorbed by chlorophyll are the wavelengths that drive photosynthesis
  2. Green light is used more efficiently than red or blue light for photosynthesis in the chloroplast
  3. Chlorophyll is the only pigment involved in photosynthesis, so no other pigment contributes
  4. The rate of photosynthesis is independent of the wavelength of light that strikes the leaf
19.

Blood CO₂ rises during exercise. How does this lead to faster, deeper breathing?

[1]
  1. The rise in CO₂ stretches the alveoli, triggering deeper breaths
  2. Chemoreceptors detect the rise and the medulla stimulates the ventilation muscles
  3. CO₂ stimulates stretch receptors in the leg muscles, which signal the lungs
  4. The cerebellum detects the rise in CO₂ and inhibits the ventilation muscles
20.

Which row correctly compares photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs?

[1]
RowEnergy source of photoautotrophEnergy source of chemoautotrophExample of a chemoautotroph
A.lightoxidation of inorganic substancesiron-oxidizing bacteria
B.lightconsuming other organismsfungi
C.oxidation of inorganic substanceslightalgae
D.heatlightnitrifying bacteria
  1. Row C
  2. Row A
  3. Row B
  4. Row D
21.

How does complementary base pairing ensure that DNA replication produces identical copies?

[1]
  1. Hydrogen bonds transfer the base sequence directly to the new strand
  2. The bases on the new strand are identical to those on the template
  3. Free nucleotides are only added where they pair with the template
  4. Any base can pair with any other base on the template strand
22.

A student was asked to find the amino acid sequence coded by part of a gene whose template strand reads 3′-TAC CGA GTT-5′. The table shows the student's working. In the genetic code, AUG codes for methionine, GCU for alanine and CAA for glutamine; UAC codes for tyrosine, CGA for arginine and GUU for valine. Which statement identifies the mistake in the working?

[1]
StepStudent's working
1The mRNA is complementary to the template strand: 5′-AUG GCU CAA-3′
2The tRNA anticodons pair with these codons: 3′-UAC-5′, 3′-CGA-5′ and 3′-GUU-5′
3Looking up UAC, CGA and GUU in the table of the genetic code gives tyrosine, arginine, valine
  1. Step 2: each anticodon has the same base sequence as the codon that it pairs with
  2. Step 3: each anticodon must be looked up backwards in the table, from 3′ to 5′
  3. Step 1: the mRNA has the same bases as the template, so it is 5′-UAC CGA GUU-3′
  4. Step 3: the table lists mRNA codons, so AUG, GCU and CAA should be looked up
23.

During translation, what determines which amino acid is added next to the growing polypeptide?

[1]
  1. Pairing of the mRNA codon with a tRNA anticodon
  2. The ribosome selects amino acids at random
  3. The amino acid sequence of the last protein
  4. The order of the ribosomes on the mRNA
24.

Pollen from a flower on another plant of the same species is carried to this flower by an insect. Which sequence of events follows?

[1]
IIIIIIIVpetalsepalfilamentstylereceptacleHalf of an insect-pollinated flower
  1. Pollen lands on III → a pollen tube grows up to II → a male gamete fuses with a female gamete in II
  2. Pollen lands on II → a pollen tube grows to an ovule in III → a male gamete fuses with a female gamete
  3. Pollen lands on I → a pollen tube grows to an ovule in III → a male gamete fuses with a female gamete
  4. Pollen lands on II → male and female gametes fuse on II → the zygote then moves down to an ovule in III
25.

In the pedigree, the affected male II-5 has children with an unaffected woman from outside the family. Following the pattern shown by the rest of the chart, what proportion of their children is expected to be affected?

[1]
IIIIIII-1I-2II-1II-2II-3II-4II-5III-1III-2III-3III-4III-5unaffectedaffectedsquares male, circles female
  1. One quarter
  2. None
  3. One half
  4. All of them
26.

A person with type 1 diabetes produces no insulin. Which step in the diagram fails after this person eats a meal?

[1]
Blood glucose at set point≈ 5 mmol dm⁻³Blood glucose rises(e.g. after a meal)β cells of pancreassecrete insulinLiver and muscle take upglucose; glycogen madeglucose falls backBlood glucose falls(e.g. during exercise)α cells of pancreassecrete glucagonLiver breaks glycogendown; glucose releasedglucose rises backabovebelow
  1. Blood glucose falling during exercise
  2. The liver breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose
  3. α cells of the pancreas secreting glucagon
  4. Liver and muscle cells taking up glucose and making glycogen
27.

In a population of shore snails, shell thickness varies, and thick-shelled individuals are less often killed by crabs. Which statement correctly explains how this leads to natural selection?

[1]
snails from one shore population, in section, and one of their predators thin thick shell thickness varies between individuals crab
  1. Crabs cause mutations for thicker shells
  2. Thick-shelled snails survive and reproduce more
  3. Shells thicken because the snails need them
  4. All snails thicken their shells together
28.

Warfarin is a poison used to kill brown rats (Rattus norvegicus). On one farm, warfarin bait was laid for the first time in 1990, and ten years later most of the rats on the farm were resistant to it. Resistance is caused by one allele of a gene. Tissue samples from 300 rats trapped on the farm in 1985 were tested later, and two of these rats carried the allele. Which order of the events I to IV is supported by this evidence?

  • I. Rats carrying the allele survive eating the bait and leave more offspring than other rats
  • II. Warfarin bait is laid across the farm for the first time
  • III. A change in the base sequence of the gene produces the allele in one rat
  • IV. The frequency of the allele in the farm population rises
[1]
  1. III → II → I → IV
  2. III → II → IV → I
  3. III → I → II → IV
  4. II → III → I → IV
29.

The graph shows changes in a lake during eutrophication, after heavy rain washed fertilizer from the surrounding fields into it. Why did the concentration of dissolved oxygen reach its minimum about three weeks after the algae were most abundant?

[1]
a lake on farmland: fertilizer washed in by heavy rain in week 0 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 time / weeks algal cells / thousands per cm³ dissolved oxygen / mg dm⁻³ algae dissolved oxygen
  1. The algae respired faster than they photosynthesized while at their peak
  2. Fish that multiplied during the bloom used up the oxygen in respiration
  3. Nitrate and phosphate from the fertilizer reacted with the dissolved oxygen
  4. Bacteria decomposing the dead algae respired aerobically, raising the BOD
30.

Which consequences for human health and agriculture are expected as insect vectors and pests spread poleward?

  • I. Diseases such as malaria/dengue reaching new regions
  • II. Crop pests surviving milder winters in higher numbers
  • III. Fewer pest generations per year everywhere
[1]
  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. II and III only
  4. I, II and III
Paper 1B · Data-based questions

Answer all questions. Answers must be written within the answer boxes provided.

31.

The pedigree chart shows a rare condition in one family over three generations. The condition is caused by a single gene with two alleles. Squares are males, circles are females; shaded symbols show affected individuals.

IIIIIII-1I-2II-1II-2II-3II-4III-1III-2III-3unaffectedaffectedsquares male, circles female
(a)Deduce the most likely mode of inheritance of the condition, giving reasons.[3]
(b)State the genotypes of I-1 and of II-1, using Xᴬ for the normal allele and Xᵃ for the recessive allele.[2]
(c)Predict the probability that a further son of II-1 and II-2 is affected, and that a further daughter is a carrier.[2]
32.

The diagram shows a food web on a rocky shore. Ecologists estimated the energy stored in new biomass each year by the organisms in one food chain from the web. The results are shown in the table.

OrganismEnergy stored in new biomass / kJ m⁻² yr⁻¹
seaweed12 000
limpet1 300
sea star140
gull12
seaweedphytoplanktonlimpetmusselbarnaclesea stardog whelkgull
(a)State the trophic level of the sea star in the food chain shown in the table.[1]
(b)Calculate the percentage of the energy stored by limpets that is stored by sea stars.[1]
(c)Explain why most of the energy stored by limpets is not stored by sea stars.[2]
(d)Predict, with a reason, the effect on the dog whelk population if all the sea stars were removed from the shore.[2]
33.

A student used a simple calorimeter to compare the energy content of foods. A weighed sample of each food was burned beneath a boiling tube containing 20 cm³ of water, and the temperature rise of the water was recorded. Three samples of each food were tested and the mean energy released per gram was calculated.

FoodMain componentMean energy released / kJ g⁻¹
Peanutlipid19.7
Breadcarbohydrate9.8
Dried applecarbohydrate10.4
Butterlipid24.1
(a)Calculate how many times more energy per gram is released by butter than by bread.[1]
(b)State the conclusion about lipids and carbohydrates supported by these data.[1]
(c)The energy values measured with this apparatus are lower than the true values. Suggest two reasons why.[2]
(d)Outline one reason why birds preparing to migrate store fuel as lipid rather than as carbohydrate.[2]
34.

Ecologists surveyed the number of woodland bird species breeding on ten islands of different sizes in an archipelago. The scatter graph shows the number of species recorded on each island plotted against the island's area.

0 100 200 300 400 500 0 30 60 90 Island area / km² Number of breeding bird species
(a)State the number of species recorded on the island with an area of 100 km².[1]
(b)Describe the relationship between island area and number of species shown by the data.[2]
(c)Suggest one implication of this relationship for the design of nature reserves.[1]
(d)One bird species in the survey breeds only on the smallest island (10 km²). Outline why protecting that island as a reserve (in situ conservation) may not on its own prevent the species becoming extinct.[2]

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Markscheme BbB-GAD______wAAZS2L

One mark per point; / separates alternative wording within a point, OR separates alternative answers, words in brackets are not required, underlined words are essential. OWTTE = or words to that effect.

1. A1.2.10 [1]
  • C: the (near-)universal genetic code is most simply explained by inheritance from a universal common ancestor; a later change to the code would alter almost every protein and be lethal, so it has been conserved;
2. A3.1.7 [1]
  • C: 22 pairs plus X and Y would give 46; the extra copy of chromosome 21 makes 47;
3. A4.1.7 [1]
  • B: the river isolated the two populations geographically so no alleles passed between them, and different conditions on each side (such as the presence or absence of gorillas as competitors) favoured different heritable traits, so the populations diverged;
4. A4.1.4-A4.1.5 [1]
  • D: same underlying structure, different function = homology, evidence of divergence from a common ancestor; analogous = similar function, different structure (convergence);
5. A4.2.7 [1]
  • C: seeds are stored dried and cold so they remain viable for decades; this ex situ germplasm storage insures against loss of species and crop varieties (genetic diversity), allowing future reintroduction/breeding;
6. B2.1.8 [1]
  • A: small non-polar O₂ crosses freely; polar glucose needs a transporter; charged Na⁺ needs channels or pumps;
7. B2.1.6 [1]
  • C: channel/carrier protein, passive, down the gradient;
8. B2.2.3 [1]
  • D: the membrane-bound compartment concentrates hydrolytic enzymes on the target and protects the cell's own structures from digestion; products are then absorbed across the vacuole membrane;
9. B2.2.2 [1]
  • C: in a eukaryote the nuclear envelope separates transcription from translation, so mRNA can be modified before it meets ribosomes; in a prokaryote ribosomes can bind the mRNA immediately, so the unmodified message is translated; A fails because bacteria have their own ribosomes; B fails because translation occurs inside the cell, not in the medium; C fails because the stem states that transcription did occur;
10. B2.3.6 [1]
  • A: for any shape, surface area scales with the square of the length (3² = 9) and volume with the cube (3³ = 27), so the ratio changes by 9/27, to one third; B has the ratio moving the wrong way; C and D use the wrong powers of 3;
11. B3.1.5 [1]
  • B: in quiet exhalation the diaphragm and external intercostals relax, so the diaphragm domes upwards and the ribs fall, reducing the volume of the thorax and raising the pressure in the lungs above atmospheric, so air flows out; at the end of each inhalation and exhalation air flow stops because the pressures are equal;
12. B3.2.7 [1]
  • A: faster evaporation from leaf cell walls draws more water out of the xylem, so the tension (negative pressure) rises and, through cohesion, the whole column is pulled up faster; root pressure is a push from the roots that transpiration does not raise, and xylem pressure becomes more negative, not positive;
13. B4.2.6 [1]
  • C: killing fungi cuts the mass lost from 58 % to 24 % and killing bacteria cuts it only to 44 %, while killing both leaves 6 %, so both groups of saprotrophs decompose the litter and fungi contribute more; A reverses this, only 6 % is lost without saprotrophs (B), and the mesh kept soil animals out (D);
14. C1.1.8 [1]
  • A: tube 1 is the undiluted stock, so only four tenfold dilutions have been carried out: 1.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³; A and C are the off-by-one errors of counting three or five dilution steps;

The two adjacent powers of ten are the distractors, so the tube must be counted, not the transfers.

15. C1.2.5 [1]
  • D: aerobic respiration requires oxygen and has a much higher ATP yield, producing carbon dioxide and water; anaerobic respiration in human muscle needs no oxygen, yields far less ATP, and produces lactate;
16. C1.2.3 [1]
  • D: 30 × 30 kJ = 900 kJ is transferred to ATP, and 900 ÷ 2870 × 100 = 31 %; the other 69 % is released as heat; ADP and phosphate hold less energy than ATP, since energy must be supplied to convert them to ATP, so the rest cannot be stored in them;
17. C1.3.4 [1]
  • B: separation reflects the balance between solubility (mobile phase) and adsorption (stationary phase); Rf = distance moved by pigment ÷ distance moved by solvent;
18. C1.3.6 [1]
  • A: correlation between absorption and rate shows chlorophyll captures the light energy used; accessory pigments explain the differences;
19. C3.1.15 [1]
  • B: CO₂/pH-sensitive chemoreceptors (in the medulla and arteries) feed the medulla's respiratory centre, which increases signals to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, driving faster, deeper ventilation;
20. C4.2.7 [1]
  • B: photoautotrophs (plants, algae, cyanobacteria) use light energy, whereas chemoautotrophs (e.g. iron-oxidizing or nitrifying bacteria) use energy released by exothermic oxidation of inorganic chemicals;
21. D1.1.2 [1]
  • C: pairing rules (A with T, G with C) mean the template dictates the new sequence exactly (new strand is complementary, so the copy of the partner strand is identical);
22. D1.2.7, D1.2.9 [1]
  • D: the table of the genetic code is a table of mRNA codons, so the amino acids come from the codons AUG, GCU and CAA (methionine, alanine, glutamine), not from the anticodons, which are complementary to them; steps 1 and 2 are correct, because the mRNA is complementary to the template (A) and an anticodon is complementary, not identical, to its codon (B); reading the anticodons backwards still does not give the codons (D);
23. D1.2.7 [1]
  • A: each tRNA has an anticodon and carries the corresponding amino acid; codon–anticodon pairing at the ribosome orders the amino acids;
24. D3.1.8 [1]
  • B: pollen lands on the stigma (II) (pollination), a pollen tube grows down the style to an ovule in the ovary (III), and a male gamete fuses with the female gamete inside the ovule (fertilization); A is wrong because the tube grows from the stigma to the ovary, C because the gametes fuse inside the ovule, not on the stigma, and D because pollen must land on the stigma, not on an anther;
25. D3.2.13 [1]
  • B: no child of an affected father in this pedigree is affected (III-1 and III-2 are the children of the affected II-2), so the condition is not passed on by males;
26. D3.3.3, D3.3.4 [1]
  • D: without insulin the target cells are not stimulated to take up glucose, so blood glucose stays high after a meal; the glucagon loop is unaffected;
27. D4.1.5 [1]
  • B: differences in adaptation lead to differential survival, then differential reproduction, so the trait becomes more common in the population; need or use does not direct variation;
28. D4.1.2, D4.1.5 [1]
  • A: the allele was already carried by rats trapped in 1985, so the mutation (III) came before the first bait (II) and was not caused by it; rats with the allele can only out-survive other rats on the bait (I) once the bait is laid, and the rise in the allele's frequency (IV) is the result of that differential survival and reproduction; A has the allele arising only after the bait, which the 1985 samples rule out, B has rats surviving the bait before any was laid, and D puts the rise in frequency before its cause;
29. D4.2.8 [1]
  • D: once the algae died, saprotrophic bacteria multiplied as they decomposed them; their aerobic respiration increased the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), so oxygen fell after the algal peak rather than during it, OWTTE;

A is contradicted by the graph: dissolved oxygen was still close to its highest (10.3 mg dm⁻³) when the algae were most abundant, and fell only as they died.

30. D4.3.6 [1]
  • A: warming extends vector/pest ranges and (usually) increases generations per year; III is backwards;
31. D3.2.11, D3.2.13
  • (a) [3]
    • X-linked recessive;
    • all affected individuals are male, and the condition passes from an affected man, through an unaffected daughter, to an affected grandson (criss-cross inheritance / skips a generation);
    • it is recessive because unaffected parents (II-1 × II-2) have an affected child (III-1); autosomal recessive is less likely because it would affect both sexes roughly equally, OWTTE;
  • (b) [2]
    • I-1 = XᵃY;
    • II-1 = XᴬXᵃ (an unaffected carrier / heterozygous);
  • (c) [2]
    • a son is affected with probability ½ (he receives Xᵃ or Xᴬ from the carrier mother, and Y from the father);
    • a daughter is a carrier with probability ½ (she receives Xᴬ from her father and either Xᴬ or Xᵃ from her mother; a daughter cannot be affected here as the father is unaffected), OWTTE;
32. C4.2.10, C4.2.11, C4.2.12
  • (a) [1]
    • secondary consumer / third trophic level;
  • (b) [1]
    • 140 ÷ 1300 × 100 = 10.8 % / 11 %;

    Accept 10.7–11.

  • (c) [2 max]
    • not all limpets are eaten by sea stars (some die and pass to decomposers);
    • parts of the limpet (shell) are not digested / egested;
    • much of the energy absorbed is released as heat in cell respiration / used for movement rather than growth;
  • (d) [2]
    • a prediction: dog whelks increase (at least at first) OR dog whelks decrease;
    • a reason matching the prediction: (increase) sea stars no longer eat mussels and barnacles, so more of this food is available to the whelks / there is less competition for mussels and barnacles OR (decrease) gulls, no longer able to feed on sea stars, eat more dog whelks, OWTTE;

    Content pivot. Award the first mark only when a matching reason is given. Also accept a later decrease if mussels crowd out barnacles, with reasoning.

33. B1.1.11
  • (a) [1]
    • 24.1 ÷ 9.8 ≈ 2.5 (times);

    Accept 2.4–2.5.

  • (b) [1]
    • lipids release (roughly) twice as much energy per gram as carbohydrates;
  • (c) [2]
    • heat is lost to the surroundings/air/tube (not all transferred to the water);
    • incomplete combustion of the sample / some sample remains unburned / heat absorbed by the glass, OWTTE;

    Mark the first two answers only.

  • (d) [2]
    • lipid stores (about) twice the energy per gram / is stored without (associated) water;
    • (so) the bird carries less mass for the same energy, which matters for flight, OWTTE;

    Content pivot.

34. A4.2.7
  • (a) [1]
    • 47 (species);

    Accept 45–49.

  • (b) [2]
    • number of species increases with (island) area / positive correlation;
    • the increase levels off / each extra unit of area adds fewer species at larger areas, OWTTE;
  • (c) [1 max]
    • larger (continuous) reserves protect more species (than small fragments) / fragmenting habitat reduces the number of species an area can support, OWTTE;
  • (d) [2 max]
    • the island can hold only a small population, so a single event (storm, fire, disease or an introduced predator) could wipe out the whole species;
    • a small population loses genetic diversity (through inbreeding), so it is less able to survive new threats, OWTTE;
    • there is no other population to recolonize the island, so an ex situ population (captive breeding / stored germ plasm) is needed as insurance;
    • no single approach is sufficient: in situ protection needs to be combined with ex situ measures, OWTTE;

    Content pivot.

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