Biology  by Bradford
support
IB Biology 2025 · exam technique · 26 command terms

IB Biology command terms. What each one asks for, with marked examples.

Every written question in IB Biology starts with a command term, and the term decides what earns the marks: State wants one fact, Explain wants the reasons, Evaluate wants a judgement. Below is each term the question bank sets, what it asks for, how its marks usually build, and real parts from the bank with their markschemes, each linked to its subtopic.

How the marks build

A markscheme usually lists more points than the part is worth: a 3-mark part might offer five, marked [3 max]. Each point is one separate idea worth one mark, and the same idea said twice scores once. A slash separates other wording that is accepted for the same point; words in brackets are not needed for the mark; underlined words are essential; OWTTE means "or words to that effect".

A point that opens with another subtopic's code, such as [B2.1], links to another part of the course. It earns credit if you give it, but full marks never depend on it.

How to use this page

Read the two notes on a term, then try one of its examples before you open the markscheme, and count your separate points against the marks. The questions are original, written to the 2025 guide, not IB past-paper questions, and the notes are exam technique in my own words, not the IB’s official definitions. Explain alone sets 838 parts of the bank’s 3,371; Suggest and Outline come next.

Jump to a term

The groups are the skills that Exam practice drills: one short paper on one skill, from the topics you have started.

State, outline, describe

Say what you know: name it, then give a brief or a full account. Drill this skill in Exam practice →

State

175 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 3 marks, most often 1

What it asks forOne short factual answer. No working, no explanation.

How the marks buildOne short fact per mark, and nothing else is credited, so working and reasons are wasted time. Where the question asks for two, a markscheme may mark only the first two you write: put down the two you are surest of, not a list of five.

B1.2 ProteinsB1.2.4SL and HLshort-answer question
Proteins carry out an enormous range of functions. State three functions of proteins, giving a named example of a protein for each function.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 6 points
  • catalysis, e.g. amylase / any named enzyme;
  • transport, e.g. haemoglobin (oxygen) / a named membrane pump or channel;
  • structure/support, e.g. collagen / keratin;
  • hormonal signalling, e.g. insulin;
  • movement/contraction, e.g. actin / myosin;
  • defence, e.g. antibodies / immunoglobulins;

Mark the first three function and example pairs only; the function and a correct example are both needed for each mark. Accept other valid pairs.

A2.3 VirusesA2.3.3HL onlypart (a) of a short-answer question

Bacteriophage lambda has no metabolism of its own and depends on its host cell, Escherichia coli, throughout the lytic cycle. Near the end of the cycle the phage genome directs the synthesis of an enzyme that digests the bacterial cell wall.

(a)State two resources or processes that the phage obtains from the host cell during the lytic cycle.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 4 points
  • energy / ATP;
  • protein synthesis / ribosomes (and tRNA);
  • nucleotides / amino acids / nutrition;
  • enzymes for transcription/replication (RNA polymerase / DNA polymerase);

Mark the first two only.

D1.1 DNA replicationD1.1.8HL onlyshort-answer question
State the roles of DNA ligase and of primase in DNA replication.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • ligase joins (Okazaki) fragments / seals nicks in the sugar–phosphate backbone;
  • primase synthesizes (short) RNA primers that give DNA polymerase a starting point;

Identify

157 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 5 marks, most often 2

What it asks forA short, specific answer. No explanation needed.

How the marks buildOne specific answer per mark, often in numbered slots, and markschemes often mark only the first answers given. When the question says "using the data", each answer needs the values or a clear comparison from the table or graph.

A3.1 Diversity of organismsA3.1.4SL and HLpart (c) of a short-answer question

Red flour beetles (Tribolium castaneum) live in stored flour and grain, and develop from egg to adult in about four weeks at 30 °C. A population collected from a grain store in one country (P) and a population from a grain store in another country (Q) look identical. A student plans to use the biological species concept to find out whether P and Q belong to the same species. The beetles can be kept in jars of flour in an incubator, and males and females can be told apart while they are still pupae.

(c)Identify two variables that should be kept the same for every cross.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 6 points
  • temperature (of the incubator);
  • type or mass of flour in each jar / food supply;
  • size of the jar / space available;
  • age of the beetles when they are paired;
  • time the pair is kept together / time allowed before the offspring are counted;
  • humidity / light;

Mark the first two answers only.

D1.1 DNA replicationD1.1.4SL and HLpart (b) of a short-answer question

A laboratory uses the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to amplify a short region of DNA extracted from a 5000-year-old human bone.

(b)Identify two precautions that would reduce the risk of contamination.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 4 points
  • work in a dedicated clean room with positive air pressure, separate from where PCR products are handled;
  • wear a full body suit, mask and gloves, changed frequently;
  • sterilize surfaces and equipment with bleach and UV light;
  • remove the outer surface of the bone before sampling;

Mark the first two only.

C3.1 Integration of body systemsC3.1.15SL and HLpart (a) of a short-answer question

A student wrote this explanation: "During exercise the muscles use up oxygen, so the concentration of oxygen in the blood falls. The lungs detect the fall and respond by inflating faster and more deeply, so that more oxygen is taken in." The table shows mean results from healthy volunteers who breathed three different gas mixtures while resting and then breathed ordinary air during moderate exercise on a bicycle.

ConditionArterial O₂ / kPaArterial CO₂ / kPaArterial pHVentilation rate / dm³ min⁻¹
Rest, ordinary air13.35.37.407.5
Rest, air with 5 % CO₂ added13.86.47.3328.0
Rest, air with 15 % O₂ instead of 21 %8.45.17.418.1
Moderate exercise, ordinary air13.15.47.3834.0
(a)Identify, using the data, two pieces of evidence that a fall in the oxygen concentration of the blood is not the main cause of the rise in ventilation rate during exercise.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 3 points
  • during moderate exercise arterial O₂ hardly changes (13.3 to 13.1 kPa), yet ventilation rate rises more than fourfold (7.5 to 34.0 dm³ min⁻¹);
  • breathing 15 % O₂ lowers arterial O₂ far more (to 8.4 kPa), yet ventilation rate hardly rises (7.5 to 8.1 dm³ min⁻¹ / by 8 %);
  • breathing 5 % CO₂ raises arterial CO₂ (5.3 to 6.4 kPa) and lowers pH (7.40 to 7.33), and ventilation rate rises almost fourfold (to 28.0 dm³ min⁻¹) although arterial O₂ does not fall, OWTTE;

Each point needs the values or a clear comparison from the table. Mark the first two only.

List

1 written part in the bank, each worth 1 mark

What it asks forShort items only. No sentences, no explanation.

How the marks buildItems, not sentences. The markscheme takes the first items you give, so a longer list earns nothing extra and a wrong item early on costs a mark.

C3.1 Integration of body systemsC3.1.19HL onlypart (a) of a short-answer question

Plants coordinate their growth and responses without a nervous system.

(a)List two named phytohormones.[1]
Markscheme: 1 mark
  • any two of: auxin / cytokinin / ethylene (ethene) / gibberellin / abscisic acid;

Mark the first two only; both required for the mark.

Outline

351 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 5 marks, most often 2

What it asks forA brief summary of the main points: more than a list, less than a full explanation.

How the marks buildA brief account, one mark per relevant point. Each point is a short statement of its own; reasons are not needed beyond what makes the point clear. Markschemes usually offer more points than marks, so the skill is choosing the clearest ones.

A3.2 Classification and cladisticsA3.2.4HL onlypart (b) of a short-answer question

A fossil skull and jaw of an extinct mammal, about 45 million years old, has been found. Biologists want to decide to which clade of living mammals this species belongs.

(b)Outline two features that a trait of the skull or jaw should have if it is to be used as evidence for placing the fossil in a clade.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 5 points
  • found in the members of that clade but not in other groups / a derived trait shared only by that clade;
  • inherited from the common ancestor of the clade, not evolved independently in unrelated groups (by convergent evolution);
  • complex / made of many parts (e.g. the arrangement of the ear bones or the pattern of cusps on the teeth), so unlikely to have evolved more than once;
  • not simply an adaptation to a diet or habitat that unrelated groups also share;
  • clearly preserved in hard parts, so it can be seen and compared in the fossil, OWTTE;

Mark the first two features only.

D3.3 HomeostasisD3.3.5SL and HLpart (c) of a short-answer question

A person walks out of a warm building into air at −5 °C. Within a minute, the body begins responses that reduce heat loss and increase heat production, although the core body temperature has not yet changed.

(c)After several weeks of living in a cold climate, the rate of heat production by the person's body cells has increased. Outline how the hypothalamus and pituitary gland bring about this change.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • the hypothalamus stimulates the (anterior) pituitary gland (by secreting a releasing hormone / TRH);
  • the pituitary gland secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone / TSH into the blood;
  • TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete (more) thyroxin;
  • thyroxin raises the metabolic rate / rate of cell respiration in (most) body cells, so more heat is released, OWTTE;

Accept thyroxine.

B4.2 Ecological nichesB4.2.10SL and HLshort-answer question
Prey animals have chemical, physical and behavioural adaptations that help them resist predation. Outline adaptations of prey animals for resisting predation, including at least one example of each type.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 7 points
  • chemical: production of toxins / venom / distasteful chemicals, e.g. poison dart frogs with toxic skin, skunks spraying repellent;
  • chemical adaptations are often combined with warning coloration (aposematism) so predators learn to avoid the prey, OWTTE;
  • physical: hard shells / spines / armour, e.g. tortoise shell, porcupine quills, hedgehog spines;
  • physical: camouflage / cryptic coloration or shape, e.g. stick insects, flatfish matching the sea floor;
  • physical: mimicry of a harmful species by a harmless one, e.g. hoverflies resembling wasps;
  • behavioural: fleeing / rapid escape, living in herds or shoals (dilution effect, more eyes for vigilance), e.g. zebra, sardines;
  • behavioural: freezing / playing dead / being active only at night / alarm calls to warn others, OWTTE;

Mark the first three types only where a candidate gives many examples of one type; full marks require at least one chemical, one physical and one behavioural adaptation. Accept any correct named example.

Describe

140 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 7 marks, most often 2

What it asks forSay what happens, in order. No reasons needed.

How the marks buildSay what happens or what something is like, one mark per accurate detail. No reasons are needed. For a process or a method, each step is its own point, so go through it in order and leave none out.

A2.2 Cell structureA2.2.2SL and HLshort-answer question
A student is provided with a piece of onion (Allium cepa), forceps, a mounted needle, a dropping pipette, slides, coverslips, distilled water and iodine solution. Describe how to prepare a temporary mount of onion epidermis for viewing with a light microscope.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 6 points
  • peel/cut a single thin layer of epidermis, so that light can pass through and the cells lie in one layer;
  • place the tissue flat and unfolded on a clean slide;
  • add a drop of liquid (water) so that the specimen is mounted in liquid and does not dry out;
  • add a drop of iodine solution to stain the tissue / to make nuclei and cell walls visible;
  • lower the coverslip from one edge with a mounted needle, at an angle, to exclude air bubbles;
  • blot excess liquid from the edge of the coverslip with filter paper;

Award [3 max]. Accept OWTTE throughout. Do not accept 'cut a section' with no reference to thinness.

D1.1 DNA replicationD1.1.5SL and HLpart (a) of a short-answer question

Ash dieback is a disease of ash trees (Fraxinus excelsior) caused by the fungus Hymenoscyphus fraxineus. A plant-health laboratory tests leaves from young trees in a nursery. DNA is extracted from each leaf sample and amplified by PCR using primers designed to bind only to a region of H. fraxineus DNA. The products are separated by gel electrophoresis beside a DNA ladder, and a band at 310 base pairs is taken to show that the fungus is present.

(a)Describe how the laboratory could test that the primers do not also amplify DNA from the harmless fungi that commonly live on ash leaves.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 5 points
  • extract DNA from pure samples/cultures of each of the common harmless leaf fungi (and from healthy, uninfected ash leaves);
  • carry out PCR on each with the same primers and under the same conditions (temperatures, number of cycles, concentrations of reagents and of DNA);
  • include *H. fraxineus* DNA in the same run as a positive control, to show that the reaction works;
  • include a tube with no DNA as a negative control, to detect contamination;
  • separate the products on the same gel beside the ladder: the primers are specific if only the *H. fraxineus* DNA gives a band at 310 base pairs, OWTTE;
B2.2 Organelles and compartmentalizationB2.2.7-B2.2.9HL onlyshort-answer question
Describe the path followed by a secreted protein through a cell, from synthesis to release.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • synthesized by ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum (entering the rER as it is made);
  • carried (from the rER) to the Golgi apparatus in vesicles;
  • modified/processed and packaged in the Golgi apparatus;
  • (secretory) vesicles move to and fuse with the plasma membrane, releasing the protein by exocytosis;

Explain

Give the reasons or causes: the because, not only the what. Drill this skill in Exam practice →

Explain

838 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 8 marks, most often 2

What it asks forGive reasons or causes: "because" should appear. Roughly one linked reason per mark.

How the marks buildEach mark is one link in a chain of cause and effect, so a 3-mark Explain wants three linked steps, not one fact said three ways. The markscheme points usually run in order from the cause, through the mechanism, to the result, often joined by "so".

D3.3 HomeostasisD3.3.11HL onlyshort-answer question
During sleep, blood flow to the gut and kidneys is relatively high while flow to skeletal muscles is low. During vigorous physical activity this pattern reverses. Explain how and why the distribution of blood changes.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • flow to each organ is adjusted by vasodilation and vasoconstriction of the arterioles supplying it;
  • during exercise, arterioles supplying skeletal muscles dilate, increasing delivery of oxygen/glucose for (aerobic) cell respiration;
  • arterioles supplying the gut/kidneys constrict, diverting blood away from organs with a lower immediate demand;
  • blood flow to the brain remains (relatively) constant in all states;
C2.2 Neural signallingC2.2.7SL and HLpart (a) of a short-answer question

In the disease myasthenia gravis, the immune system makes antibodies that bind to the neurotransmitter receptors on muscle fibres at neuromuscular junctions. The antibodies block the receptors and cause many of them to be destroyed. The muscles of people with the disease are weak, and become weaker with repeated use.

(a)Explain why the muscles of a person with myasthenia gravis contract weakly.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 5 points
  • fewer receptors are available for acetylcholine to bind to;
  • fewer (ligand-gated) channels open in the membrane of the muscle fibre;
  • fewer sodium / positive ions diffuse in, so the depolarization / excitatory postsynaptic potential is smaller;
  • the depolarization is too small to reach the threshold / to trigger an action potential in some muscle fibres, so no action potential is generated in them;
  • fewer muscle fibres are stimulated to contract, so the contraction is weaker;
B1.2 ProteinsB1.2.7HL onlyshort-answer question
Explain how the primary structure of a protein determines its three-dimensional shape.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • the primary structure is the sequence of amino acids (coded by the gene);
  • the sequence determines where each type of R-group sits along the chain;
  • R-group interactions (hydrogen bonds / ionic bonds / disulfide bridges / hydrophobic interactions) form between particular residues;
  • (so) the chain folds into a specific/stable three-dimensional (tertiary) conformation, OWTTE;

Justify

27 written parts in the bank, worth 2 to 5 marks, most often 3

What it asks forGive the evidence or reasoning that supports the answer you chose.

How the marks buildThe marks are for the reasons, not the claim: the claim is given, or you have just chosen it, and each mark is a piece of evidence or reasoning that supports it. Where the claim compares two things, the justification has to cover both.

A2.1 Origins of cellsA2.1.7HL onlyshort-answer question
All living organisms use the same genetic code, and all have membranes built from a lipid bilayer. Justify the claim that the shared genetic code is stronger evidence for a single last universal common ancestor (LUCA) than the shared bilayer membranes.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • amphipathic molecules form bilayers/vesicles spontaneously in water, so bilayer membranes could have arisen independently in separate lineages;
  • the assignment of codons to amino acids is (largely) arbitrary / many other codes would work equally well;
  • (so) separate origins of life would be expected to produce different codes;
  • the same code in all organisms is therefore most simply explained by inheritance from one ancestral population (LUCA), whereas shared membranes are consistent with it but do not require it, OWTTE;

Links A2.1.5 (self-assembly of bilayers) to A2.1.7. For full marks the answer must address both the membranes and the code.

C4.2 Transfers of energy and matterC4.2.19SL and HLshort-answer question
An electricity company burns wood pellets made from a forest that is replanted after felling. It claims that this is 'carbon neutral', whereas burning coal is not. Justify this claim.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • burning either fuel is combustion, which releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere;
  • the carbon in the wood was removed from the atmosphere recently by photosynthesis in the trees, so it is already part of the active carbon cycle;
  • the replanted trees photosynthesize as they grow and absorb an equivalent quantity of carbon dioxide, so over the whole cycle there is no net addition to the atmosphere;
  • the carbon in coal has been held in a long-term store for hundreds of millions of years, so burning it transfers carbon that was not in circulation into the atmosphere;

The justification must refer to both fuels. Accept an answer that also notes the delay while the trees regrow, provided the reasoning above is present.

D4.3 Climate changeD4.3.3SL and HLshort-answer question
Boreal (taiga) forests at present store more carbon than they release. Justify the prediction that continued warming could turn these forests from a carbon sink into a carbon source.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 5 points
  • decomposition by soil microorganisms is at present very slow in the cold, often waterlogged soils, so dead organic matter and peat accumulate;
  • warming raises the rate of decomposition and of soil respiration more than it raises the rate of photosynthesis, so more carbon dioxide is released than is fixed;
  • thawing of permafrost exposes organic carbon that has been frozen for thousands of years to decomposers, releasing carbon dioxide and methane;
  • warming increases the frequency and severity of forest fires and of insect outbreaks such as bark beetle, which kill trees and release stored carbon by combustion and decay;
  • the released carbon dioxide and methane cause further warming, so the change is reinforced by positive feedback;

Answers must link warming to a named process that releases carbon. A bare assertion that 'more carbon will be released' gains no mark.

State and explain

1 written part in the bank, each worth 3 marks

How the marks buildTwo jobs in one part. The statement earns its own mark, then the explanation earns the rest, so give them in that order and make each easy to find.

A1.2 Nucleic acidsA1.2.11HL onlyshort-answer question
State what is meant by the 5′ end and the 3′ end of a DNA strand, and explain why this directionality matters for replication.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks
  • the 5′ end carries a (terminal) phosphate group; the 3′ end carries a free hydroxyl group;
  • the two strands of the double helix run antiparallel (5′→3′ opposite 3′→5′);
  • DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to a free 3′-OH, so a new strand is always built 5′→3′;

Beyond this subtopic. Award if given; the marks can be earned without it.

  • D1.1 (as a result) synthesis is continuous on one template strand but discontinuous (as Okazaki fragments) on the other, OWTTE;

Suggest and predict

Use what you know on something new: a likely answer, result or design. Drill this skill in Exam practice →

Suggest

500 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 4 marks, most often 2

What it asks forOffer a plausible reason. You are not expected to have learnt this one: reason from what you know.

How the marks buildYou are not expected to have learnt this answer, so the markscheme accepts any reasonable idea that fits the context, and usually lists more points than there are marks. Use the details the question gives you; a suggestion that ignores them rarely scores.

D1.3 Mutation and gene editingD1.3.4, D1.3.6SL and HLpart (b) of a short-answer question

A worker in a radiography department receives a small dose of ionizing radiation to the whole body over many years.

(b)Suggest why a mutation in a lung cell may cause disease in this worker but will not appear in their children.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 3 points
  • a lung cell is a body (somatic) cell, and mitosis passes the mutation only to its daughter cells within that tissue;
  • an accumulation of such mutations in a cell can lead to uncontrolled division, i.e. a tumour;
  • somatic cells do not contribute DNA to gametes, so the mutation cannot be passed to the next generation, OWTTE;
A4.2 Conservation of biodiversityA4.2.3SL and HLpart (b) of a short-answer question

Haast's eagle (Hieraaetus moorei), the largest eagle known to have existed, lived only in New Zealand. Its main prey were moa, large flightless birds many times heavier than the eagle. Humans settled New Zealand in about 1280 CE and hunted moa, which were extinct within about 200 years. Haast's eagle disappeared at around the same time.

(b)Suggest two other ways in which the arrival of humans could have contributed to the extinction of Haast's eagle.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 4 points
  • people killed eagles directly, e.g. because they were a danger to people / for their feathers;
  • burning and clearing of forest and scrub destroyed the eagle's habitat (nesting and hunting areas);
  • people also hunted other large birds that the eagle could have eaten instead of moa;
  • animals introduced by people (dogs, rats) took eggs or young / competed for prey, OWTTE;

Mark the first two only.

C3.2 Defence against diseaseC3.2.6SL and HLpart (b) of a short-answer question

A person has a bacterial infection in a cut on one hand. Tissue fluid from the hand drains into lymph vessels, and this lymph passes through lymph nodes in the armpit. A few days later, the lymph nodes in the armpit on the same side of the body are swollen, but the person's other lymph nodes are not.

(b)Suggest why only the lymph nodes in that armpit become swollen.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 4 points
  • lymph from the infected hand carries the bacteria/their antigens to the nearest lymph nodes;
  • lymphocytes specific to these antigens are activated in these nodes;
  • activated lymphocytes divide / form clones, so the number of cells in the node increases and it swells, OWTTE;
  • lymph nodes elsewhere receive no antigen from this infection, so no lymphocytes are activated there;

Predict

136 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 4 marks, most often 2

What it asks forSay what will happen based on the information given. Reasons only if asked.

How the marks buildThe prediction itself is usually one mark. When the question asks for a reason, the rest of the marks are for the reasoning, and a bare prediction is capped: one markscheme in the bank allows [1 max] without a reason.

B1.2 ProteinsB1.2.11HL onlypart (b) of a short-answer question

Haemoglobin consists of four polypeptides, each holding one haem group. Myoglobin, found in muscle, consists of a single polypeptide with one haem group.

(b)Predict the effect on haemoglobin of a treatment that breaks the bonds and interactions between its four polypeptides but not those within each polypeptide.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 3 points
  • the four polypeptides would separate / the quaternary structure would be lost;
  • each polypeptide would keep its own (secondary and) tertiary structure and its haem group, because the bonds within each chain are unaffected;
  • each separated chain would resemble a myoglobin molecule / could still bind one oxygen, OWTTE;
A3.2 Classification and cladisticsA3.2.5HL onlypart (a) of a short-answer question

A species of fish lives in completely dark caves. It has no functional eyes and descends from a surface-living ancestor; its closest living relative lives in surface streams. The opsin gene codes for a light-sensitive protein that is used only in vision. A molecular clock for the opsin gene was calibrated using pairs of surface-living fish species whose divergence times are known from dated fossils. It was then used to estimate when the cave species and its surface relative diverged.

(a)Predict, with a reason, whether the date given by the opsin gene will be older or more recent than the true time of divergence.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • older / the divergence is overestimated / the split appears to have happened longer ago than it did;
  • in the dark the opsin protein has no function, so changes to the opsin gene are no longer harmful / selective pressure on the gene is removed in the cave lineage;
  • (so) mutations in the opsin gene of the cave lineage are no longer removed by natural selection and accumulate faster than in the surface species used for calibration;
  • there are more differences than expected for the time that has passed, and the clock converts the extra differences into extra time, OWTTE;

Accept "the mutation rate / rate of change increases" for the third point only when it is linked to the loss of selective pressure on the opsin gene in the cave lineage. Award [1 max] for the prediction with no reason.

D3.2 InheritanceD3.2.2, D3.2.5SL and HLpart (a) of a short-answer question

Soybean (Glycine max) flowers contain both anthers and an ovary, and each flower normally pollinates itself before it opens. Purple flower colour (P) is dominant to white flower colour (p). A breeder crossed true-breeding white-flowered plants, used as the female parent, with true-breeding purple-flowered plants. The anthers of each white flower were to be removed while still immature, and pollen from a purple-flowered plant was then brushed onto its stigma. The seeds were collected and grown as the F1 generation.

(a)In one batch of white flowers, the anthers were removed only after they had released their pollen. Predict, with a reason, the flower colours of the F1 plants grown from the seeds of this batch.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 4 points
  • white-flowered plants appear in the F1 (some or all of the plants, with any others purple-flowered);
  • the white-flowered plants grew from seeds formed by self-fertilization, when the flower's own pollen reached its stigma (pp × pp gives pp);
  • the purple-flowered plants grew from seeds of the intended cross, which are all Pp;
  • no plant from the intended cross can be white, because every one of its seeds receives P from the purple (PP) parent, OWTTE;

Accept a mixture of purple and white plants, or all white plants, when justified. Award [1 max] for a correct prediction with no reason.

Design

20 written parts in the bank, worth 3 to 6 marks, most often 4

What it asks forName the independent and dependent variables, what you control, and how you repeat it.

How the marks buildMarks go to the parts of a workable method: what is changed, what is measured and how, what is kept the same, and how many times it is repeated. Name each variable as independent, dependent or controlled and say how it would be measured; "keep it a fair test" names nothing.

A3.2 Classification and cladisticsA3.2.6HL onlypart (a) of a short-answer question

Two populations of a freshwater snail live in separate lakes. They look almost identical but differ slightly in the shape of the shell. A researcher wants to know whether they should be classified as one species or two.

(a)Design a molecular investigation to determine how closely the two populations are related.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 5 points
  • collect a sample of several individuals from each lake (and one individual of a related species as an outgroup);
  • extract DNA and sequence the same gene/region (e.g. a mitochondrial gene) from every individual;
  • align the sequences and count the number of base differences between every pair of individuals;
  • compare the mean number of differences within each population with the mean number between the two populations;
  • use the differences to construct a cladogram, and repeat with a second, independent gene to check the result, OWTTE;
B4.2 Ecological nichesB4.2.9SL and HLshort-answer question
Leaves of some plant species are tougher than those of others. A student hypothesizes that tougher leaves suffer less damage from herbivorous insects. Design an investigation to test this hypothesis in a woodland. Your answer must identify the independent variable, the dependent variable, the variables to be controlled and the replication used.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 5 points
  • independent variable: leaf toughness, measured quantitatively as the force needed to push a probe through the lamina (penetrometer), for a range of plant species;
  • dependent variable: percentage of the leaf area removed by herbivores, estimated using a transparent grid or by image analysis;
  • controlled variables: height and position of the leaf on the plant, age of the leaf, degree of shading/aspect, the same woodland site, and the same period over which damage has accumulated;
  • replication: at least ten leaves sampled at random per species, with a mean toughness and a mean percentage damage calculated for each species;
  • the relationship between the two means is then tested, e.g. by calculating a correlation coefficient;

Accept other quantitative measures of toughness or of damage. Award marks only where a variable is clearly identified as independent, dependent or controlled.

D1.3 Mutation and gene editingD1.3.8HL onlypart (a) of a short-answer question

A gene of unknown function, provisionally named Zx1, is expressed in the developing kidney of mice.

(a)Design an investigation using gene editing to find out what Zx1 does.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 5 points
  • use CRISPR-Cas9 with a guide RNA complementary to a sequence within Zx1, so that Cas9 cuts and disrupts the gene;
  • carry out the editing in fertilized eggs/early embryos and breed the mice to obtain individuals homozygous for the knockout allele;
  • compare the knockout mice with unedited mice of the same strain (the control group), examining kidney structure and function;
  • keep age, sex, diet and housing conditions the same for both groups, and use enough individuals for the difference to be tested statistically;
  • confirm by sequencing that the gene is disrupted, and attribute any difference between the groups to the loss of Zx1, OWTTE;

Compare and distinguish

Say how two things are alike and how they differ, point by point. Drill this skill in Exam practice →

Compare and contrast

52 written parts in the bank, worth 2 to 7 marks, most often 2

What it asks forBoth similarities and differences, each written as a paired statement covering both things.

How the marks buildSimilarities and differences, and every point written as a pair covering both things: "mitosis produces two cells, whereas meiosis produces four". A sentence about one side only scores nothing.

D2.1 Cell and nuclear divisionD2.1.4SL and HLextended-response question
Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 7 points
  • both are forms of nuclear division / both are preceded by DNA replication (S phase);
  • both involve spindle microtubules moving chromosomes (through similar phases);
  • mitosis has one division, whereas meiosis has two;
  • mitosis produces two cells, whereas meiosis produces four;
  • mitotic daughter cells are diploid/same ploidy as the parent, whereas meiotic cells are haploid (half);
  • mitotic cells are genetically identical, whereas meiotic cells differ (crossing over, random orientation);
  • mitosis serves growth/repair/asexual reproduction, whereas meiosis makes gametes/spores for sexual reproduction;

Credit only explicitly comparative points for differences; award converse.

A4.2 Conservation of biodiversityA4.2.3SL and HLpart (a) of a short-answer question

The dodo (Raphus cucullatus) of Mauritius became extinct in the late 1600s. The passenger pigeon (Ectopistes migratorius) of North America was once one of the most abundant birds on Earth, yet the last individual died in 1914.

(a)Compare and contrast the human causes of these two extinctions.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • in both cases humans hunted the birds directly and destroyed their habitat;
  • both species were easy to kill: the dodo was flightless and unafraid of people, whereas passenger pigeons nested and roosted in huge, predictable colonies where many could be killed at once, OWTTE;
  • the dodo was also affected by introduced species (pigs, rats, monkeys) eating eggs and young, whereas the passenger pigeon was not;
  • the passenger pigeon was killed on an industrial scale for city markets, with flocks located by telegraph and the birds shipped by rail, whereas the dodo was taken by small numbers of sailors and settlers;

Award marks only for explicitly comparative statements.

B1.2 ProteinsB1.2.12HL onlyshort-answer question
Compare and contrast fibrous proteins and globular proteins.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 7 points
  • both are polypeptides built from amino acids joined by peptide bonds;
  • in both, the three-dimensional form is determined by the sequence of amino acids (the primary structure);
  • both contain secondary structure, α-helix and/or β-pleated sheet, stabilized by hydrogen bonds;
  • fibrous proteins are long, narrow and highly repetitive in structure, whereas globular proteins are compact and rounded with an irregular tertiary structure;
  • fibrous proteins are usually insoluble in water, whereas globular proteins are usually soluble;
  • fibrous proteins usually have structural roles, e.g. collagen and keratin, whereas globular proteins usually have metabolic roles, e.g. haemoglobin and enzymes;
  • globular proteins are more readily denatured by heat or a change in pH than fibrous proteins are;

Each point must be an explicitly paired statement. Award converse.

Compare

38 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 3 marks, most often 2

What it asks forSimilarities only. Write both sides in the same sentence.

How the marks buildSimilarities only. Each point has to name both things, and a difference, however true, earns no mark here.

A2.1 Origins of cellsA2.1.9HL onlyshort-answer question
Compare the conditions at an alkaline hydrothermal vent with the conditions inside a spark-discharge apparatus, as settings for the formation of the first organic molecules.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 5 points
  • both supply energy that drives the formation of organic molecules: heat and chemical gradients at the vent, electrical discharge in the apparatus;
  • in both, only small, simple molecules such as CH₄, NH₃, H₂, CO₂ and H₂O are present at the start, with no larger organic molecules;
  • both are free of molecular oxygen, so any organic molecules formed are not oxidized;
  • both have been shown to yield organic molecules, including amino acids;
  • in both, water is the medium in which the reactions take place;

Compare requires similarities only; each point must refer to both settings. Do not credit differences such as the catalytic mineral surfaces present at vents.

B4.1 Adaptation to environmentB4.1.7SL and HLshort-answer question
Compare the hot desert biome with the tundra biome.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 6 points
  • both receive low annual precipitation, so liquid water is scarce in both;
  • both have sparse, low-growing vegetation and low rates of primary production;
  • both experience extreme temperatures for part of the year;
  • both support low species diversity compared with forest biomes;
  • in both, decomposition is slow: limited by lack of water in the desert and by low temperature in the tundra;
  • organisms in both show adaptations for conserving water, since liquid water is either scarce or frozen;

Compare requires similarities only; each point must refer to both biomes. Do not credit differences.

C2.1 Chemical signallingC2.1.1HL onlyshort-answer question
Compare the way a peptide hormone and a steroid hormone bring about a response in a target cell.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 6 points
  • both are carried in the blood and so reach cells throughout the body;
  • both are effective at very low concentrations;
  • both bind to a specific receptor whose binding site is complementary in shape to the hormone;
  • both act only on cells that possess the appropriate receptor, so cells without it give no response;
  • both change the activity of the target cell, e.g. by altering the quantity of a protein that the cell makes;
  • both are broken down or removed, so the response does not continue indefinitely;

Compare requires similarities only; each point must refer to both types of hormone. A statement that the receptors are in different locations is a contrast and gains no credit here.

Distinguish

65 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 3 marks, most often 2

What it asks forGive the differences, always stating both sides.

How the marks buildDifferences only, each one a paired statement. "DNA contains deoxyribose" scores nothing on its own; "DNA contains deoxyribose, whereas RNA contains ribose" scores the mark.

B1.1 Carbohydrates and lipidsB1.1.4SL and HLshort-answer question
Distinguish between monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides, giving an example of each.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • monosaccharides are single sugar units, e.g. glucose/fructose/ribose;
  • disaccharides are two units joined (by a glycosidic bond), e.g. maltose/sucrose/lactose;
  • polysaccharides are many units / polymers, e.g. starch/glycogen/cellulose;
  • (joined/split by condensation/hydrolysis), OWTTE;
A1.2 Nucleic acidsA1.2.7SL and HLshort-answer question
Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • DNA contains deoxyribose, whereas RNA contains ribose;
  • DNA contains thymine, whereas RNA contains uracil (in its place);
  • DNA is (usually) double-stranded / a double helix, whereas RNA is single-stranded;
  • DNA molecules are (generally) longer than RNA molecules, OWTTE;

Comparative phrasing required; award converse.

D3.3 HomeostasisD3.3.7HL onlypart (a) of a short-answer question

The kidneys carry out both excretion and osmoregulation. Over two days, the osmotic concentration of one healthy adult's blood plasma stayed between 0.285 and 0.295 osmol L⁻¹, while the osmotic concentration of their urine ranged from 0.08 to 1.10 osmol L⁻¹.

(a)Distinguish between excretion and osmoregulation.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 3 points
  • excretion is the removal from the body of (toxic) waste products of metabolism, such as urea;
  • osmoregulation is the control of the osmotic concentration (of water and solutes) of the blood / body fluids;
  • excretion removes substances made by the body's own cells, whereas osmoregulation adjusts the amounts of water and salts, which mostly come from food and drink, OWTTE;

Do not accept 'removal of water' alone as osmoregulation.

Deduce and analyse

Reach a conclusion from the information given. Drill this skill in Exam practice →

Deduce

233 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 4 marks, most often 2

What it asks forReach a conclusion from the information given, and say what led you to it.

How the marks buildReach a conclusion from what you are given and show the step that gets you there: a bare conclusion can earn nothing. Where the deduction runs through numbers, set out each step, as the steps can carry marks of their own.

A3.1 Diversity of organismsA3.1.12HL onlypart (a) of a short-answer question

In northern Europe, most dandelions (Taraxacum) produce seeds without fertilization, so each seed grows into a plant genetically identical to its parent. Botanists have described hundreds of dandelion 'microspecies', each a line of plants that differs from other lines in small but constant features such as leaf shape.

(a)Deduce, with a reason, whether the biological species concept could decide if two lines of these dandelions belong to the same species.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 3 points
  • the biological species concept groups organisms that interbreed / breed together to produce fertile offspring;
  • these dandelions do not interbreed: seeds form without fertilization, so genes are not exchanged between lines;
  • (so) it could not: every line is reproductively isolated and would count as a separate species / the concept gives no way of grouping lines, OWTTE;

A conclusion that the concept cannot be used earns no mark without a reason.

B3.3 Muscle and motilityB3.3.2HL onlypart (c) of a short-answer question

A muscle fibre from the leg of a frog (Rana temporaria) is 30 mm long when relaxed. Along each of its myofibrils the sarcomeres are joined end to end, and each sarcomere is 2.5 µm long when relaxed. When the fibre contracts fully, every sarcomere shortens to 2.0 µm. In each power stroke, a myosin head moves a thin filament about 10 nm (0.010 µm) along the thick filament.

(c)Deduce the minimum number of power strokes needed to move one thin filament as far as it slides when its sarcomere shortens from 2.5 µm to 2.0 µm, and the number of ATP molecules used by a myosin head that makes all of them.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 3 points
  • the thin filaments at both ends of the sarcomere slide towards its centre, so each half shortens by 0.25 µm and one thin filament slides 0.25 µm / 250 nm;
  • 0.25 ÷ 0.010 = 25 power strokes;
  • 25 ATP, because one ATP is hydrolysed in each cross-bridge cycle;

A candidate who divides the whole 0.5 µm by 0.010 µm (50 power strokes) can score the ATP mark by ECF (50 ATP).

D2.3 Water potentialD2.3.10-D2.3.11HL onlyextended-response question
Strips of leaf epidermis were placed in a series of sucrose solutions of known water potential. In the solution with a water potential of −1100 kPa, 50 % of the epidermis cells were plasmolysed. Taking this as the point at which an average cell is just beginning to plasmolyse, deduce, with reasons, the mean solute potential of the epidermis cells.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 5 points
  • when the plasma membrane is just beginning to pull away from the wall, the protoplast no longer presses on the wall, so ψp = 0;
  • there is no net movement of water, so the water potential of the cells equals that of the solution, −1100 kPa;
  • ψs = ψw − ψp = −1100 − 0 = −1100 kPa;
  • cells vary: those that plasmolysed had a less negative ψs than −1100 kPa and those that did not had a more negative ψs, so −1100 kPa is a mean value;
  • the value is slightly more negative than the ψs of the cells before immersion, because the water lost in reaching this point concentrated the cell sap, OWTTE;

Analyse

43 written parts in the bank, worth 2 to 6 marks, most often 2

What it asks forBreak the data down and pick out the patterns or relationships: more than describing.

How the marks buildPick out the pattern and what it means, using figures from the data. The marks are for comparisons the data support (this is higher than that, and by how much), not for copying the table out in words.

D1.2 Protein synthesisD1.2.16HL onlyextended-response question
The human genome contains roughly 20 000 protein-coding genes, yet human cells can make well over 100 000 different proteins. Analyse how alternative splicing helps to account for this discrepancy.[6]
Markscheme: 6 marks
  • a eukaryotic pre-mRNA contains coding exons separated by non-coding introns;
  • during processing, introns are removed and exons joined together (splicing) to make the mature mRNA;
  • in alternative splicing, different combinations or subsets of exons are joined from the same pre-mRNA;
  • (so) one gene can yield several different mature mRNAs and hence several different polypeptides;
  • the number of possible proteins can therefore greatly exceed the number of genes;
  • different cell types or conditions splice the same transcript differently (a regulated process), further expanding the proteome, OWTTE;
C1.1 Enzymes and metabolismC1.1.4, C1.1.8SL and HLpart (a) of a data-based question

The rate of reaction of a wild-type enzyme and of variant G, which differs from the wild type by a single amino acid substitution in its active site, was measured over a range of substrate concentrations at constant temperature and pH. Vmax is the maximum rate, reached when the enzyme is saturated with substrate. The table shows Vmax and the substrate concentration at which the rate is half of Vmax for each form (mean ± standard error).

Enzyme formVmax / μmol min⁻¹ (mean ± SE)Substrate concentration at ½Vmax / mmol dm⁻³ (mean ± SE)
Wild-type48.0 ± 1.22.1 ± 0.2
Variant G47.2 ± 1.56.8 ± 0.3
(a)Analyse the data to compare the affinity of the two enzyme forms for their substrate.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • variant G reaches half of Vmax only at a much higher substrate concentration (6.8 vs 2.1 mmol dm⁻³), so it binds substrate less tightly / has a lower affinity;
  • the two Vmax values are almost equal (~47–48), so the maximum catalytic rate is essentially unchanged, OWTTE;
A1.1 WaterA1.1.6SL and HLpart (a) of a data-based question

Two towns lie at the same latitude: one on the coast, the other far inland. Weather stations recorded the mean daily temperature range (the difference between the highest and lowest temperature each day) during July. A student proposed that the sea moderates the coastal climate because water has a high specific heat capacity.

LocationMean daily temperature range in July / °C
Coastal town6.2
Inland town (same latitude)14.8
(a)Analyse what these data suggest about the effect of the sea on the local climate.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • the coastal town has a much smaller daily temperature range (than the inland town);
  • (consistent with the idea that) the sea warms and cools slowly / buffers/moderates the surrounding air temperature, OWTTE;

Comment on

30 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 4 marks, most often 2

What it asks forSay what the data show and what that means: a judgement, not a summary.

How the marks buildA judgement, not a summary. Say what the evidence shows, where it falls short, and what you conclude; full marks need both the reading of the evidence and the judgement.

A2.2 Cell structureA2.2.9SL and HLshort-answer question
A textbook states: 'All eukaryotic cells contain one nucleus.' A student finds that mature human red blood cells have no nucleus, that phloem sieve tube elements lose their nucleus as they mature and that skeletal muscle fibres contain many nuclei. Comment on the textbook statement.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • the three examples show eukaryotic cells with no nucleus and with many nuclei, so the statement is not correct as a general rule;
  • the statement does describe the typical eukaryotic cell, and the great majority of eukaryotic cells do contain a single nucleus;
  • the exceptions are specialized cells in which the loss or multiplication of nuclei is related to function, e.g. loss of the nucleus leaves more room for haemoglobin in a red blood cell, and a long muscle fibre formed by cell fusion needs many nuclei to control its large volume of cytoplasm;
  • a better statement would be that eukaryotic cells usually contain a nucleus, with named exceptions, OWTTE;

Both an interpretation of the examples and a judgement on the statement are needed for full marks.

B4.1 Adaptation to environmentB4.1.3SL and HLpart (b) of a data-based question

Marram grass grows on coastal sand dunes but is absent from nearby inland grassland. An ecologist hypothesises that marram is absent inland because it is a poor competitor there, not because the inland soil is unsuitable for it.

(b)Comment on one confounding variable that could weaken the conclusion, and how it could be dealt with.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • inland and dune soils may differ (e.g. in drainage, salinity or nutrients), which could affect marram growth independently of competition;
  • this could be dealt with by also transplanting marram into competitor-free inland soil / analysing and matching the soils / using a reciprocal transplant design, OWTTE;
D2.2 Gene expressionD2.2.8HL onlypart (a) of a data-based question

Some plants survive drought better if they have already experienced an earlier, milder period of water shortage. Genetically identical seedlings of a small flowering plant were divided into two groups. Untreated plants were kept well watered throughout. Primed plants were given one mild drought lasting four days and were then rewatered. Three weeks later all the plants were exposed to the same severe drought. The relative quantity of mRNA transcribed from a drought-response gene, and the percentage of plants that survived, were recorded. Each value is a mean for 30 plants.

TreatmentRelative mRNA before severe drought / arbitrary unitsRelative mRNA after 24 hours of severe drought / arbitrary unitsPlants surviving severe drought / %
Untreated1.04.231
Primed1.311.678
(a)Comment on the effect of priming on the expression of the drought-response gene.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • before the severe drought the two groups differ very little (1.0 compared with 1.3 arbitrary units), so priming does not simply leave the gene switched on;
  • after 24 hours of severe drought the primed plants contain almost three times as much mRNA as the untreated plants (11.6 compared with 4.2 arbitrary units);
  • both groups increase expression in response to drought, but the primed plants respond far more strongly;
  • this means the earlier mild drought changed the way the gene responds weeks later, a memory of the first drought is retained, and the stronger response is associated with much higher survival (78 % against 31 %);

A value quoted with its unit is required for the first mark. Both a description and an interpretation are needed.

Evaluate and discuss

Weigh the strengths and the limits, and come to a view. Drill this skill in Exam practice →

Evaluate

83 written parts in the bank, worth 2 to 6 marks, most often 3

What it asks forWeigh the strengths against the weaknesses, then give a judgement.

How the marks buildStrengths, limitations, then a judgement that weighs them. Many of the bank's Evaluate markschemes keep a mark for the judgement, and expect both sides to appear before it.

D1.3 Mutation and gene editingD1.3.8HL onlyshort-answer question
The function of a gene of unknown role is often investigated by 'knocking out' that gene in a model organism and observing the phenotype that results. Evaluate this approach.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 7 points
  • a knockout removes the product of one gene only, so a change in phenotype can be attributed to that gene, giving direct evidence of its function;
  • gene editing with CRISPR-Cas9 allows a chosen sequence to be targeted precisely, and knockouts can be produced quickly in organisms with short life cycles;
  • unedited organisms of the same strain provide a control, so the comparison is valid;
  • however, other genes may have overlapping functions, so a knockout may produce no visible phenotype even when the gene is important (functional redundancy);
  • knocking out an essential gene may kill the embryo, so any later function of the gene cannot be observed;
  • loss of one gene can alter the expression of others, so the phenotype seen may be an indirect consequence rather than the normal role of the gene;
  • conclusion: the approach yields useful, testable evidence but its results need confirming by other methods, such as measuring where and when the gene is normally expressed, OWTTE;

A judgement is required for the final mark. Both strengths and weaknesses must appear.

B4.2 Ecological nichesB4.2.4SL and HLpart (a) of a short-answer question

The rat tapeworm (Hymenolepis diminuta) lives attached to the wall of the small intestine of rats, surrounded by the partly digested contents of the rat's gut. It has no mouth and no gut of its own, and it takes up glucose and amino acids from the fluid around it.

(a)A student claims that "every animal is holozoic, because every animal is heterotrophic". Evaluate this claim, using the rat tapeworm as an example.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 6 points
  • it is true that every animal is heterotrophic: animals cannot make their own carbon compounds from inorganic sources, so they obtain them from other organisms;
  • the tapeworm is heterotrophic too, as it takes its carbon compounds (glucose and amino acids) from the rat's food;
  • most animals are holozoic: they ingest food, digest it internally, then absorb and assimilate the products;
  • but the tapeworm has no mouth or gut, so it does not ingest food or digest it internally / its food has already been digested by the rat;
  • it only absorbs small molecules across its body surface (and assimilates them), so its nutrition is not holozoic;
  • so the first part of the claim is correct but the conclusion does not follow: being heterotrophic does not make an animal holozoic, and the claim is false, OWTTE;

Full marks require a judgement on the claim. Award a maximum of two marks if the tapeworm is not used as evidence.

C3.2 Defence against diseaseC3.2.17SL and HLshort-answer question
A parent argues: 'Almost everyone around my child is vaccinated, so my child does not need to be vaccinated.' Evaluate this argument.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 5 points
  • (for) while a sufficient percentage of the population is immune, transmission is greatly impeded, so the unvaccinated child is unlikely to meet the pathogen;
  • (against) if many parents reason this way, the proportion immune falls below the level needed for herd immunity;
  • transmission chains are then re-established and outbreaks can occur, putting the child and others at risk;
  • members of a population are interdependent: people who cannot be vaccinated (e.g. infants, the immunocompromised) rely on others being immune;
  • the child remains susceptible and has no memory cells if exposed, e.g. when travelling to an area with the disease, OWTTE;

For full marks the answer must include at least one point for and one point against the argument.

Discuss

58 written parts in the bank, worth 2 to 7 marks, most often 3

What it asks forGive a balanced account: more than one side, then a conclusion.

How the marks buildMore than one side, then a conclusion. A one-sided answer is capped however good it is: one markscheme in the bank allows [4 max] out of 5 for benefits alone.

B2.2 Organelles and compartmentalizationB2.2.4HL onlyextended-response question
Discuss the benefits and the costs to a eukaryotic cell of carrying out the later stages of aerobic respiration inside mitochondria rather than free in the cytoplasm.[5]
Markscheme: 5 marks from 7 points
  • benefit: the enzymes and substrates of the Krebs cycle are concentrated together in the small volume of the matrix, so the reactions are faster;
  • benefit: the inner membrane is folded into cristae, giving a large area for electron transport chains and ATP synthase;
  • benefit: the intermembrane space is small, so a proton gradient builds up quickly across the inner membrane;
  • benefit: these reactions are kept separate from incompatible processes in the cytoplasm, OWTTE;
  • cost: substrates and ADP must be moved into the mitochondrion and ATP moved out across its membranes, which needs transport proteins / energy;
  • cost: the cell must make and maintain two extra membranes for every mitochondrion, OWTTE;
  • judgement: the much faster / greater production of ATP outweighs the costs of transport and of making the membranes, OWTTE;

A balanced answer needs at least one cost and a judgement for [5]; benefits alone score a maximum of [4].

D3.1 ReproductionD3.1.7SL and HLshort-answer question
Discuss one benefit and one concern associated with in vitro fertilization (IVF).[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • benefit: allows (otherwise) infertile couples to have children, e.g. blocked oviducts / low sperm counts;
  • (benefit developed) embryos can be screened for serious genetic disease before transfer;
  • concern: surplus embryos are created and may be discarded (ethical objections) / multiple pregnancies from multiple transfers;
  • concern: cost/access inequality / emotional and physical burden of hormone treatment, OWTTE;

At least one benefit AND one concern for full marks.

A3.2 Classification and cladisticsA3.2.2HL onlypart (b) of a short-answer question

During the second half of the twentieth century, many biologists began to classify organisms into clades instead of into the traditional hierarchy of taxa.

(b)Discuss whether the move to classification using clades is an example of a paradigm shift.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 7 points
  • for: the basis of classification changed from overall (morphological) similarity to common ancestry;
  • for: a group is now accepted only if it contains an ancestor and all of its descendants, so some long-accepted taxa were redefined or abandoned;
  • for: a fixed series of ranks gave way to unranked, nested clades, since ranks are arbitrary and do not reflect the gradation of variation;
  • for: new methods (comparison of base sequences, parsimony analysis) and new questions (is this group a clade?) replaced the old ones;
  • against: the traditional ranks and names are still widely used alongside clades, so the old framework was not fully replaced;
  • against: the change happened gradually over decades rather than as a sudden revolution / many traditional taxa (e.g. mammals) turned out to be clades and were kept;
  • against: the underlying theory of common descent did not change, cladistics applied it more consistently, OWTTE;

Award [3 max] if only one side is considered. Accept a reasoned conclusion either way.

Calculate

Work to a number, showing the steps and the units. Drill this skill in Exam practice →

Calculate

310 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 4 marks, most often 1

What it asks forShow your working and give the unit. The number on its own can lose marks.

How the marks buildA 2-mark calculation usually gives one mark for the working and one for the answer, so write the working even when the arithmetic is easy, and give the unit. ECF (error carried forward) means a slip early on need not cost the later marks, but only if the method is on the page.

B1.2 ProteinsB1.2.8HL onlypart (a) of a short-answer question

Wool is made of keratin, a fibrous protein whose polypeptides are coiled mainly into alpha-helices. A wet wool fibre can be stretched to nearly twice its original length, and X-ray studies show that stretching pulls the alpha-helices out into straight, extended chains. In an alpha-helix each amino acid adds 0.15 nm to the length of the chain; in a fully extended chain each amino acid adds 0.33 nm.

(a)Calculate the maximum percentage increase in length when a section of alpha-helix is pulled out into a fully extended chain.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • (0.33 − 0.15) ÷ 0.15 (× 100);
  • 120 %;

Award [1] for 220 % or for 2.2 times the length.

C4.1 Populations and communitiesC4.1.4SL and HLpart (a) of a data-based question

Students estimated the size of a woodlouse population in a walled garden using the capture–mark–release–recapture method. On day 1 they captured woodlice under boards, marked each with a small dot of non-toxic paint, and released them where found. On day 3 they made a second capture. Their results: first capture, marked and released: 84; second capture: 63, of which 12 were marked.

(a)Calculate the Lincoln-index estimate of the population size.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • N = (84 × 63) ÷ 12;
  • = 441 (woodlice);

Accept 440–441. Award ECF for correct method.

D4.1 Natural selectionD4.1.13HL onlyshort-answer question
A recessive genetic disorder affects 1 in 10 000 people in a large, randomly mating population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele and the expected frequency of carriers, then comment on the implication for trying to eliminate the allele by preventing affected people from reproducing.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks
  • q² = 1/10 000 = 0.0001, so q = √0.0001 = 0.01 (and p = 0.99);
  • carrier frequency 2pq = 2 × 0.99 × 0.01 = 0.0198 ≈ 2 % (about 1 in 50);
  • carriers (≈1 in 50) far outnumber affected individuals (1 in 10 000), so most recessive alleles are hidden in unaffected heterozygotes;
  • (so) preventing affected individuals from reproducing would remove the allele extremely slowly / barely change its frequency, because the carriers are unaffected and continue to pass it on, OWTTE;

Hardy–Weinberg: p + q = 1, q = √q²; numerically exact.

Estimate

19 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 2 marks, most often 1

What it asks forAn approximate value is fine, but show how you reached it.

How the marks buildAn approximate value, read or worked out from the data, and the markscheme accepts a range rather than one number. Show how you reached it, so a marker can follow you if you land just outside.

D1.1 DNA replicationD1.1.4-D1.1.5SL and HLpart (c) of a data-based question

Ivory seized by customs officers was traced using DNA profiling. Short tandem repeat (STR) regions, in which a short sequence is repeated a variable number of times, were amplified from the tusk and from reference samples of elephants from three populations. The table shows the sizes of the amplified fragments, in base pairs, found in each sample.

SampleFragment sizes at locus 1 / bpFragment sizes at locus 2 / bp
tusk132, 140205, 217
population P132, 136, 140205, 209
population Q128, 132, 140205, 217
population R136, 144209, 213
(c)The DNA on either side of the repeats at locus 1 adds 100 bp to each fragment, and each repeat unit is 4 bp long. Estimate the number of repeats in the 132 bp fragment.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • (132 - 100) / 4;
  • 8 (repeats);

Award [2] for the correct answer with no working. ECF.

C2.1 Chemical signallingC2.1.5HL onlypart (b) of a short-answer question

A small group of cells in a thin slice of living tissue was stimulated to release a signalling chemical, Z. Z diffuses away from its source and binds to receptors on the surrounding cells. The response of cells at different distances from the source was measured. The experiment was repeated on a second slice treated with a drug that inhibits the enzyme that breaks down Z in the tissue. The table shows the results.

Distance from source / µmResponse, untreated slice / % of maximumResponse, slice treated with drug / % of maximum
0100100
506182
1003767
2001445
300530
400220
(b)Estimate the distance from the source at which the response falls to 50 % of maximum in the untreated slice and in the slice treated with the drug.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • untreated slice: 70 µm (accept 65 to 75 µm);
  • slice treated with the drug: 175 µm (accept 165 to 185 µm);

Determine

9 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 2 marks, most often 1

What it asks forWork out the answer from the data or the reasoning given.

How the marks buildOne answer worked out from the data or a diagram: usually a reading, then a conversion or a short calculation. Write down the reading you took, so a misread can still earn the later marks.

A2.2 Cell structureA2.2.2SL and HLpart (a) of a data-based question

A student calibrated the eyepiece graticule of a light microscope. The diagram shows the field of view with the eyepiece graticule, which carries 100 arbitrary divisions, lying above a stage micrometer ruled in millimetres. No magnification is stated on the diagram.

020406080100 0.00.51.0 Eyepiece graticule Stage micrometer arbitrary divisions scale / mm
(a)Determine the distance, in µm, represented by one division of the eyepiece graticule.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 3 points
  • reads from the diagram that 40 eyepiece divisions align with 0.5 mm of the stage micrometer;
  • converts to 500 µm and divides by 40;
  • 12.5 (µm);

Award full marks for a correct answer with no working. Accept 12.5 µm per division. ECF from a misread alignment.

C1.1 Enzymes and metabolismC1.1.14, C1.1.15HL onlypart (c) of a data-based question

The rate at which an enzyme converted its substrate to product was measured at 37 °C and pH 7 over a range of substrate concentrations, with no inhibitor and in the presence of two different inhibitors, P and Q, each at a fixed concentration. The graph shows the results.

Substrate concentration / mmol dm⁻³Rate of reaction / µmol min⁻¹024681012141601020304050Vmax½ Vmaxno inhibitorinhibitor Pinhibitor Q
(c)Using the ½ Vmax line, determine the substrate concentration at which the rate reaches ½ Vmax with no inhibitor and with inhibitor P, and explain the difference.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks from 3 points
  • no inhibitor: 2 mmol dm⁻³ and inhibitor P: 6 mmol dm⁻³ (both needed, accept ±0.5);
  • P competes with the substrate for the active site, so more substrate is needed to occupy the same proportion of active sites / to outcompete the inhibitor;
  • (so) P is a competitive inhibitor, OWTTE;

Draw and sketch

Diagrams and graphs: clear lines, correct labels, nothing extra. Drill this skill in Exam practice →

Draw

67 written parts in the bank, worth 1 to 6 marks, most often 4

What it asks forSharp pencil, straight label lines, no shading.

How the marks buildEach mark is one feature drawn in the right place and labelled, with a straight line to the exact structure. Where the question asks for an annotated diagram, a label alone does not score: the function has to be there too.

C2.1 Chemical signallingC2.1.9, C2.1.10HL onlydrawing question
Draw a labelled diagram to show how epinephrine (adrenaline) binding to a receptor on a liver cell leads to activation of enzymes inside the cell. Include the receptor, the G protein, adenylyl cyclase, the second messenger and the kinase that is activated.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 5 points
  • epinephrine shown binding to a (G protein-coupled) transmembrane receptor on the outer surface of the plasma membrane;
  • G protein shown alongside the receptor on the inner side of the membrane, activated by exchanging GDP for GTP;
  • activated G protein shown activating adenylyl cyclase (in the membrane);
  • adenylyl cyclase shown converting ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP), the second messenger, in the cytoplasm;
  • cAMP shown activating protein kinase A, which (phosphorylates and) activates enzymes for glycogen breakdown / release of glucose;

Accept a schematic with boxes and arrows provided the membrane is shown and the components are in the correct compartments (epinephrine outside, cAMP and kinase inside).

D3.1 ReproductionD3.1.4SL and HLdrawing question
Draw an annotated diagram of the male-typical human reproductive system, naming at least five structures and giving the function of each.[5]
Markscheme: 5 marks from 6 points
  • testis, annotated as producing sperm (by meiosis) and secreting testosterone;
  • epididymis, annotated as the site where sperm mature and are stored;
  • sperm duct (vas deferens), annotated as carrying sperm from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation;
  • seminal vesicle and/or prostate gland, annotated as secreting fluid (containing nutrients / alkaline fluid) that makes up most of the semen;
  • urethra, annotated as carrying semen (and urine) through the penis to the outside;
  • penis (erectile tissue) and/or scrotum, annotated as delivering semen into the vagina / holding the testes below core body temperature;

Each mark needs a correctly placed label and a correct function. Positions must be anatomically reasonable: testis in the scrotum, epididymis on the testis, sperm duct looping up to join the urethra.

A1.2 Nucleic acidsA1.2.6, A1.2.2SL and HLdrawing question
Draw a labelled diagram of a short section of a DNA molecule containing three base pairs. Use the standard symbols for phosphate, sugar and base, and show the two strands running antiparallel and held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary bases. The helical shape is not required.[4]
Markscheme: 4 marks from 6 points
  • each backbone drawn as alternating pentagons (sugar) and circles (phosphate), with each phosphate joining the sugar of one nucleotide to the sugar of the next;
  • bases drawn as rectangles, each attached to a sugar (pentagon) and pointing inwards towards the other strand;
  • the two strands drawn antiparallel: one strand inverted relative to the other, so that the sugar–phosphate sequence runs in opposite directions (5′ and 3′ ends may be labelled);
  • three base pairs shown, correctly paired as adenine with thymine and guanine with cytosine (at least one A–T and one G–C);
  • hydrogen bonds shown as dashed or dotted lines between the paired bases only, not as part of the backbone;
  • (bases named, or initials A, T, G, C used consistently);

A1.2.2 requires circles, pentagons and rectangles for phosphates, sugars and bases, so do not award the first mark for a plain line drawn as the backbone. The helical shape is not required (A1.2.6). Students are not required to show the numbers of hydrogen bonds, so accept any number of dashed lines per pair. Do not accept bases joined directly to each other without a backbone.

Sketch

16 written parts in the bank, worth 3 to 5 marks, most often 3

What it asks forShow the shape and the trend. Label the axes; exact values are not needed.

How the marks buildThe shape and the trend, with labelled axes. No values are needed: almost every Sketch markscheme in the bank credits the axes, then where the line starts, which way it goes and where it ends.

D4.3 Climate changeD4.3.7SL and HLdrawing question
Fragments of a reef-building coral (Acropora sp.) were grown in tanks of seawater held at a range of pH values, from present-day ocean pH down to values predicted for the year 2300. The rate of calcification, the rate at which calcium carbonate was deposited, was measured for each tank. Sketch a graph of the results that would be expected.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • axes labelled: pH of the seawater on the horizontal axis, with the direction of the scale shown, and rate of calcification on the vertical axis;
  • the rate of calcification is highest at the highest (present-day) pH;
  • the rate falls as pH falls / as the seawater becomes more acidic;
  • the line reaches zero, or becomes negative (net dissolution of calcium carbonate), at the lowest pH values;

Accept a straight line or a curve. No numerical values are required; credit shape and trend only.

B3.1 Gas exchangeB3.1.9SL and HLdrawing question
A potometer was used to measure the rate of water uptake of a leafy shoot in still air at a constant temperature, over a range of relative humidities. Sketch a graph of the results that would be expected.[3]
Markscheme: 3 marks from 4 points
  • axes labelled: relative humidity of the air / % on the horizontal axis and rate of transpiration (or water uptake) per unit time on the vertical axis;
  • the rate is highest at the lowest relative humidity;
  • the rate falls as relative humidity rises;
  • the line reaches, or approaches, zero as relative humidity approaches 100 %;

Accept a smooth curve or a straight line of negative gradient. No numerical values are required; credit shape and trend only.

Annotate

1 written part in the bank, each worth 2 marks

What it asks forAdd brief notes to the diagram. A bare label will not score.

How the marks buildNotes on the diagram, not just names: each mark is a note or a symbol put exactly where it applies.

D2.3 Water potentialD2.3.1SL and HLpart (a) of a short-answer question

The diagram shows a hydroxyl (–OH) group on part of a glucose molecule, next to a water molecule, W. Glucose is very soluble in water.

rest of the glucose ring C O H hydroxyl (–OH) group O H H water molecule W
(a)Annotate the diagram to show the partial charges (δ+ or δ−) on the oxygen and hydrogen atoms of the hydroxyl group and of water molecule W.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • δ− on the oxygen atom and δ+ on the hydrogen atom of the hydroxyl group;
  • δ− on the oxygen atom and δ+ on both hydrogen atoms of W;

Both hydrogen atoms of W must be marked δ+ for the second mark.

Construct

1 written part in the bank, each worth 2 marks

What it asks forBuild the diagram, graph or table from the information given.

How the marks buildBuild it from the information given (a grid, a table, a graph) and show every stage: the marks go to each stage being right, from the gametes to the filled grid to the ratio.

D3.2 InheritanceD3.2.5SL and HLpart (c) of a data-based question

In pea plants, the allele for round seeds (R) is dominant to the allele for wrinkled seeds (r). A plant of unknown genotype, with round seeds, was crossed with a homozygous recessive (wrinkled-seeded) plant in a test cross. The seeds produced by this cross were counted.

Seed phenotypeNumber of seeds
Round98
Wrinkled102
(c)Construct a Punnett grid to show this cross and confirm the expected ratio of offspring.[2]
Markscheme: 2 marks
  • gametes of Rr parent shown as R and r; gametes of rr parent shown as r and r;
  • grid correctly filled to give offspring genotypes Rr, Rr, rr, rr: a 1:1 ratio of round (Rr) to wrinkled (rr);

Data-based questions

Read a graph or a table, and use what it shows. Drill this skill in Exam practice →

Data-based questions mix the terms above around one data set: read a value, calculate, describe the trend, suggest a reason, then a part that leaves the data for content you were taught. The bank holds 298 of them, and Paper 1B is made of nothing else. Try a full Paper 1B at standard level or at higher level, each with its markscheme.

Other command terms

Terms you may meet that no written part in the bank sets yet, and what each asks for.

Put it into practice

All 40 IB Biology subtopics →  ·  Exam practice →  ·  Open the exam maker →